Having done the first two parts of the question you can show
similarly that, with $n$ numbers, there exists a certain value of
the variance and hence that the variance can be at least that
large. It is quite a subtle point, but you can't be sure that you
have found the largest value of the variance with $n = 4$ or more
without assuming that the geometrical reasoning generalises from
$3$ dimensions to higher dimensions. The results are in fact valid
in $n$-dimensional geometry but you are not asked to prove
this.